From: Marcin Borkowski <mbork@mbork.pl>
To: Nikolay Kudryavtsev <nikolay.kudryavtsev@gmail.com>
Cc: "help-gnu-emacs@gnu.org" <help-gnu-emacs@gnu.org>
Subject: Re: Why is Elisp a lisp-2?
Date: Fri, 07 Oct 2016 12:53:43 +0200 [thread overview]
Message-ID: <87bmywxweg.fsf@mbork.pl> (raw)
In-Reply-To: <25ac0468-e211-a62a-26d3-90d400c34937@gmail.com>
On 2016-10-07, at 12:17, Nikolay Kudryavtsev <nikolay.kudryavtsev@gmail.com> wrote:
> From the time I started using Elisp I never gave much conscious thought
> to it being a lisp-2 and kind of naturally treated it as a lisp-1. And
> now it has finally downed on me that Elisp is actually a lisp-2.
>
> So here my question, what was the historical reasoning for Elisp being a
> lisp-2?
(trolling-mode 1)
Because it is a serious tool and not a toy?
/me ducks and runs
(trolling-mode 0)
Actually, I'd like to hear the answer, too. One conjecture is that
Elisp being lisp-2 enables functions and variables with the same name
(this is what lisp-2 means, right?), and RMS might have found it useful:
there are quite a few such pairs in Emacs.
Best,
--
Marcin Borkowski
next prev parent reply other threads:[~2016-10-07 10:53 UTC|newest]
Thread overview: 6+ messages / expand[flat|nested] mbox.gz Atom feed top
2016-10-07 10:17 Why is Elisp a lisp-2? Nikolay Kudryavtsev
2016-10-07 10:53 ` tomas
2016-10-07 13:01 ` Stefan Monnier
2016-10-08 13:02 ` tomas
2016-10-07 10:53 ` Marcin Borkowski [this message]
2016-10-10 13:31 ` Oleksandr Gavenko
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